I’m trying to study for my Law course and I need some help to understand this question.
Is it fair for a court to hold that parties are bound in contract even though one of the parties claims that he/she did not intend to form a contract? Generally, should the courts give more weight to subjective intent in determining whether a contract has been formed? Why or why not.
1. Read the case Access Organics v Hernandez (Links to an external site.)
2. Watch the youtube video on past consideration (Links to an external site.)in contracts
3. Carefully explain in your own words (paraphrase and do not copy from the case) the following words and statements in the case (Links to an external site.)
Remember to use your own words; restate and number the statements and your responses.